Oh I just realized I forgot to respond to your previous question! I knew I was missing something. Well, to tell the truth I'm throwing stuff around to see what sticks because again I'm not very informed about Egyptian history. However, I think that the identification of Ramses II with the Pharaoh of the Exodus would be a serious mistake. I talked to one of my friends who pushed the theory of the Merneptah Stele (under the hypothesis that he was co-ruling with Ramses II before his death and that's when the events described took place) referring to Israel as a nomadic or seminomadic people and supposed that because they were referred to as a people they might have been under Egyptian rule and not considered an independent country. And so maaaybe an exodus of a few hundred people occurred during that time, where Israelites left Egypt to meet up with this nomadic people. I have a serious problem with that. The Bible doesn't describe Egypt under the golden age of a pharaoh like Ramses. It describes an egypt that is "utterly destroyed" as one of the advisors says in ch. 10. It describes the Pharaoh and his whole host being drawn into the Red Sea and drowned. This, coupled with the economic waste of the plagues would be a complete and utter political disaster. Deuteronomy says "the LORD hath destroyed them unto this day" which implies a continual wasting. Note of course this doesn't imply that the whole of what could be an Egyptian military was destroyed, just whatever the Biblical Pharaoh had raised to try and stop the Exodus from happening. So Ramses is probably not the Pharaoh described in the Scriptures. Of course my intent is not to defend the historicity of the Biblical text, just to say what follows if we grant its historicity. However, I myself do believe that the Scriptures are inerrant with respect to historical matters